CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions

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12 CLAT legal reasoning questions, answered in your browser

Legal Reasoning is about a quarter of the CLAT paper and the section that
rewards method over memory more than any other. These 12 questions run on the current pattern
and are marked the way CLAT marks: +1 for a correct answer, −0.25 for a wrong one.
Every question shows a worked solution afterwards explaining why the other three options fail.

  • 12 questions
  • Real marking
  • Solutions for all 12
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0 of 12 answered

One thing worth knowing before you start: you are not being tested on law you know.
Each question hands you a principle and asks whether you can apply it to facts. The commonest way
to lose marks here is to answer from what you think the law ought to be rather than from the
principle in front of you. Several questions below are built to punish exactly that.

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Q1Article 14 — reasonable classification

PRINCIPLE: A law may treat one group differently from another only if two conditions are both met. First, the group must be marked out by a real and identifiable difference. Second, that difference must have a sensible connection to the purpose the law is trying to achieve. A classification failing either condition is invalid.

FACTS: To reduce road accidents, a State bans drivers whose surnames begin with the letters A to M from driving between 8 pm and midnight. The State argues this halves the number of night drivers and so must reduce accidents.

Is the law valid?

Answer: C. The first letter of a surname is identifiable, so the classification clears the first condition. It fails the second: nothing about a surname bears on driving safety. Option A is the trap, since the law does reduce driver numbers, but the principle asks about connection to the purpose, not effectiveness by accident. This is the intelligible-differentia and rational-nexus test from State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952).
Q2Culpable homicide and murder

PRINCIPLE: Causing death by an act done with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing bodily injury that the offender knows is likely to cause death, is the graver offence. Where death is caused without either intention, but by an act done with knowledge that it is likely to cause death, the offence is the lesser one.

FACTS: Dev is demolishing a wall in a crowded lane. He knows people pass constantly and that falling masonry is likely to kill someone, but he wants no one harmed and shouts a warning first. A slab falls and kills a passer-by who did not hear him.

Which offence has Dev committed?

Answer: A. The principle turns entirely on intention. Dev had knowledge of likelihood but no intention to cause death or injury, which places him in the lesser category. B and D convert knowledge into intention, which the principle expressly separates. The warning goes to his state of mind, not to whether the act was an offence, so C fails. This tracks the distinction between sections 100 and 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Q3Vicarious liability

PRINCIPLE: An employer is liable for a wrongful act of an employee committed in the course of employment. An act is in the course of employment if it is a wrongful way of doing something the employee was authorised to do. An employer is not liable where the employee was doing something wholly unconnected with the work.

FACTS: Meher drives a delivery van for a bakery. Told to deliver in the old city, she takes a nine-kilometre detour to visit her sister, and while parked outside her sister’s house she reverses carelessly into a parked car.

Is the bakery liable?

Answer: D. The test is not who owned the van but whether the act was a wrongful way of doing authorised work. A nine-kilometre personal detour is a separate errand, not bad delivery driving. A and B substitute ownership for the stated test. C is wrong because the employee’s carelessness is precisely what makes an employer vicariously liable when it happens in the course of employment.
Q4Res ipsa loquitur

PRINCIPLE: Where an accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen without carelessness, and the thing causing it was under the exclusive control of the defendant, carelessness may be inferred without direct proof. The defendant may still displace the inference by showing how the accident happened without any carelessness on their part.

FACTS: A sealed sack of cement falls from the third floor of a warehouse and injures Rehan on the footpath. Only warehouse staff can access that floor. The warehouse offers no explanation for how the sack fell.

How should the court proceed?

Answer: B. Both conditions are satisfied and the warehouse offers nothing to displace the inference. A misstates the principle, whose whole purpose is to relieve a claimant who cannot identify the careless act. D reintroduces the direct proof the principle dispenses with. The seal in C is irrelevant to how the sack left the building.
Q5Coercion

PRINCIPLE: Consent is not free where it is obtained by committing or threatening to commit an act forbidden by law, or by unlawfully detaining property, with the intention of making a person enter an agreement. An agreement whose consent was so obtained may be set aside by the party whose consent was not free.

FACTS: A workshop finishes repairing Nandini’s motorcycle. It then refuses to return the motorcycle unless she signs a paper agreeing to pay four times the quoted price. Needing the vehicle for work, she signs, and later applies to set the agreement aside.

What is the outcome?

Answer: D. The principle covers unlawful detention of property, not only threats to the person, so the absence of force in A is beside the point. C invents a hardship requirement the principle does not contain. This reflects the definition of coercion in section 15 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Q6Undue influence

PRINCIPLE: A contract is induced by undue influence where one party is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage. A position to dominate exists where one party holds real or apparent authority over the other, or stands in a fiduciary relation to them, or where the other’s capacity to judge is temporarily or permanently affected by age, illness or distress.

FACTS: Two days after major surgery, and while heavily medicated, Kavita is asked by her physiotherapist to sign a document transferring her scooter to him for a tenth of its value. She signs and later seeks to have the transfer set aside.

What is the position?

Answer: A. Both limbs are met: her capacity to judge was affected by illness and medication, and a tenth of value is an unfair advantage. D takes only the second limb, but an undervalue alone is not undue influence without a dominating position. B reads the principle too narrowly, since it covers impaired capacity independently of authority. This follows section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Q7Private nuisance

PRINCIPLE: A person commits private nuisance by unreasonably interfering with another’s use or enjoyment of their land. Whether interference is unreasonable depends on its duration, timing and intensity, and on the character of the locality. Interference that is trivial, or normal for the area, is not actionable.

FACTS: Aarav opens a small carpentry workshop in a street of workshops and light factories. He runs machinery from 10 am to 5 pm on weekdays, within permitted hours. His neighbour, who works night shifts and sleeps during the day, says the noise makes daytime sleep impossible.

Is Aarav liable in nuisance?

Answer: A. The principle makes the character of the locality decisive, and machinery noise in an industrial street during working hours is normal for the area. B and C look only at the effect on this neighbour, but the test is objective reasonableness, not individual sensitivity. D reaches the right result through a moral judgement the principle never makes.
Q8Defamation and the defence of truth

PRINCIPLE: A person defames another by publishing to a third party a statement that lowers the other in the estimation of right-thinking members of society. It is a complete defence that the statement is substantially true. The defence is not defeated merely because the publisher acted from ill will.

FACTS: A former employee posts publicly that a restaurant owner was convicted of adulterating food in 2019. The conviction is a matter of public record and did occur. The employee admits she posted it purely to damage the owner’s business.

Can the owner succeed in defamation?

Answer: B. The statement plainly lowers reputation, so the claim turns on the defence, and the principle states expressly that ill will does not defeat truth. A is the trap, and D restates the injury while ignoring the defence. C overstates the law, since the defence rests on truth rather than on the record being public.
Q9Strict liability

PRINCIPLE: A person who brings onto their land something likely to cause harm if it escapes, and keeps it there as part of a non-natural use of the land, is liable for the damage its escape causes, even without carelessness. There is no liability where the escape is caused wholly by an act of a stranger over whom the occupier has no control.

FACTS: A factory stores industrial dye in a large tank. A trespasser cuts the tank open at night, dye floods a neighbouring farm and ruins the crop. The factory had maintained the tank properly.

Is the factory liable?

Answer: A. The exception decides the case. B is wrong because absence of carelessness is exactly what this form of liability disregards, so it reaches the right answer for the wrong reason. C states the rule while ignoring the stated exception, and D imports a duty of care the principle does not mention. This is the rule in Rylands v Fletcher with the stranger exception.
Q10Consent to risk

PRINCIPLE: A person who freely and knowingly accepts the risk of a particular harm cannot later complain of that harm. Acceptance must be of the specific risk that materialised, and must be genuinely voluntary. Knowledge of a risk alone is not acceptance of it.

FACTS: Ishita buys a ticket for a cricket match and sits in an unnetted stand, knowing balls are sometimes hit into the crowd. During the match a section of the stand’s railing, corroded and unmaintained, gives way and she falls and is injured.

Can the stadium rely on her acceptance of risk?

Answer: D. The principle requires acceptance of the specific risk that materialised. Ishita accepted the risk of a stray ball; a collapsing railing is a different risk she neither knew of nor accepted. A and B rely on general knowledge of risk, which the last sentence of the principle expressly rules out. C is too absolute and is not what the principle says.
Q11Offer and invitation to treat

PRINCIPLE: A proposal is a statement made with the intention of being bound as soon as the other party accepts it. A statement inviting others to make proposals is not itself a proposal and cannot be accepted into a contract. Displaying goods with a price is ordinarily an invitation to others to make proposals.

FACTS: A bookshop displays a rare edition in its window marked Rs 8,000. Tanvi walks in, puts Rs 8,000 on the counter and says she accepts. The shopkeeper says the book is already reserved and refuses to sell.

Is there a contract?

Answer: B. Under the principle the display invites proposals, so Tanvi made the proposal and the shopkeeper was free to decline it. A and D treat the display as a proposal, which the third sentence rules out. C reaches the right result by the wrong route, since the earlier reservation is not what prevents a contract forming here.
Q12Deficiency in service

PRINCIPLE: A consumer is a person who buys goods or hires services for consideration, but not one who obtains them for resale or for any commercial purpose. Deficiency means any shortcoming in the quality or manner of performance of a service that is required to be maintained under a law or under a contract.

FACTS: Faizan buys twelve identical industrial sewing machines for the garment workshop he runs for profit. Four arrive faulty and the supplier refuses to repair them. He seeks relief as a consumer.

Can he?

Answer: C. The defect and the refusal are both real, but the question is whether Faizan is a consumer at all, and the definition excludes goods obtained for a commercial purpose. A and D answer a question the principle does not reach until standing is established. B invents a bulk threshold; what matters is the purpose, not the quantity. This follows the definitions in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

How the section actually works

Until 2019 this section was called Legal Aptitude, ran to 50 questions, and about
a third of it tested legal knowledge you were expected to have memorised. From 2020 it became
Legal Reasoning, the memorised element was removed, and the questions moved under
comprehension passages. From CLAT 2024 the paper dropped to 120 questions and every section became
passage-based.

That history matters for practice. A pre-2020 paper will feed you legal general knowledge that
cannot appear on your exam, and will train you to answer from recall rather than from the passage.
We have gone through which CLAT past papers
still match the current format
if you want the year-by-year detail.

Logical Reasoning works on the same skill and is the fastest section to improve: 12 CLAT logical reasoning questions with solutions.

The four ways people lose marks here

  1. Answering from outside knowledge. The principle given may not match real law, or
    may be narrower than it. It still governs. If you know the actual rule and the passage states a
    different one, the passage wins.
  2. Stopping at the first satisfied element. Most principles have two or three
    conditions. Candidates find one that fits and answer. The distractors are usually built from the
    element people skip.
  3. Importing conditions that are not there. Writing, intention, notice, hardship —
    if the principle does not mention it, it is not a requirement.
  4. Right answer, wrong route. Two options often reach the same conclusion for
    different reasons and only one reasoning is the principle’s. Read the whole option, not the first
    word.

Common questions

Do I need to know actual law for this section?

No. Since 2020 the
section tests application, not recall. Every principle you need is printed in the passage. Knowing
real law helps you read faster, but it can also mislead you when the stated principle differs, which
is a trap several questions above use deliberately.

How many legal reasoning questions come in CLAT?

Roughly a quarter of
the 120-question paper. It is tied with Current Affairs as the heaviest section, which is why a weak
score here costs more than a weak score in Quantitative Techniques.

Are these actual past CLAT questions?

No. Past papers are the
copyright of the Consortium of National Law Universities. These are original questions built on real
statutes and doctrine, all listed in the sources below, with invented fact scenarios exactly as the
real exam uses.

What should I practise after this?

A full-length paper across all five
sections, so you can see whether Legal Reasoning is really your weak spot or whether it just feels
like it. Our free 30-question CLAT mock test covers every
section and takes about half an hour.

Scored well here and want the whole picture? The
free CLAT mock test runs all five sections in thirty minutes
and shows your score section by section.

Take the full mock test

Where to go next

If you are choosing practice material, we have written about
which past papers are worth solving and
about the official sample paper the Consortium releases to
registered candidates. Lawgic runs one live online CLAT programme at Rs 20,000 flat,
and Priyanka teaches the current affairs and GK module on it.

Sources for the principles used above — checked 6 August 2026.

  1. Q1: the intelligible-differentia and rational-nexus test under Article 14, from State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952), where a seven-judge bench struck down section 5(1) of the West Bengal Special Courts Act, 1950.
  2. Q2: the distinction between culpable homicide and murder, sections 100 and 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in force from 1 July 2024, replacing sections 299 and 300 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
  3. Q5 and Q6: coercion and undue influence, sections 15 and 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
  4. Q9: the rule in Rylands v Fletcher, including the act-of-a-stranger exception.
  5. Q12: the definitions of consumer and deficiency under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
  6. Q3, Q4, Q7, Q8, Q10 and Q11: settled doctrine on vicarious liability, res ipsa loquitur, private nuisance, defamation and the defence of truth, consent to risk, and the distinction between a proposal and an invitation to treat.
  7. Exam structure: Consortium of National Law Universities, CLAT 2027 UG syllabus.

All fact scenarios are invented. We do not reproduce past CLAT papers, which are
the copyright of the Consortium of National Law Universities.

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